Re: FFT test with few kbits

From: Paul Pires (diodude_at_got.net)
Date: 02/29/04 

Date: Sun, 29 Feb 2004 01:11:37 GMT

Cristiano <cristiano.pi@NSquipo.it> wrote in message news:_o_%b.49244$IT2.1434879@news4.tin.it...
<Snip>
>
> If EXACTLY means that you get the same p-values, then I agree.
> For example, in FIPS-140 when you take the poker test with m=1 (m is the
> block length) you get _exactly_ the frequency test; this means that the
> former works _exactly_ like the latter and it gives _exactly_ the same
> p-value, so the frequency test is totally useless when you have the poker
> test and you use it with m=1.
>
> Ok, I can try what you said, but it will take long time...

I don't think it is essential but I'd be interested in the results.

By the way, Have you noticed anything strange in the P-values for
the OSUM test in Diehard 2? When looking at per/test results of
a hundred or so? I don't want to state it specifically but if you get a
chance, could you independently examine and drop me a note if you
confirm it?

Paul
>
> Cristiano
>
>