Re: Is there cascading permission?

So, as long as a user has permissions to execute a stored procedure, the
stored procedure will execute correctly even if the user does not have
explicit permissions defined for the objects consumed within the stored
procedure?

yes, it will , unless you have dynamic sql within a stored procedure , then
you'll have to grant permision on undelaying tables

If the user has permissions to execute a stored procedure but that the
user
is explicitly denied permissions to objects consumed by the stored
procedure
will the stored procedure still execute correctly?

Yes , it will







"michael" <howlinghound@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:2DF71CC1-0FAF-4D82-A396-782AC53757C9@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
So, as long as a user has permissions to execute a stored procedure, the
stored procedure will execute correctly even if the user does not have
explicit permissions defined for the objects consumed within the stored
procedure?

If the user has permissions to execute a stored procedure but that the
user
is explicitly denied permissions to objects consumed by the stored
procedure
will the stored procedure still execute correctly?
--
Michael Hockstein


"Uri Dimant" wrote:

Yes, it is.

"michael" <howlinghound@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:CAB858A0-22F5-410C-842E-A0FE19C84343@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Let's say that I have a view that has no explicit permissions defined
for
users. Let's also say that I write a stored procedure which uses this
view.

Now, if I give explicit permissions to a user to EXEC the stored
procedure,
will the procedure execute correctly even if I don't explicitily give
permissions (such as SELECT) for the user to the view?


--
Michael Hockstein





.

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