Re: Cross-Database View Permissions

From: Jasper Smith (jasper_smith9_at_hotmail.com)
Date: 05/27/04 

Date: Thu, 27 May 2004 19:47:31 +0100

It depends on whether you allow cross database ownership chaining. This is a
configurable option post SP3 wheras prior to that it was implicit. Basically
if all the views and tables have the same owner e.g. dbo and the databases
themselves are owned by the same login e.g. sa then users with permissions
to select from a view in database1 don't need any explicit permissions on
objects in database2 - they do still require access though.Post SP3 this is
configured using sp_configure 'Cross DB Ownership Chaining' and sp_dboption
with the 'db chaining' option. See BOL for more on cross database ownership
chaining. 

-- 
HTH
Jasper Smith (SQL Server MVP)
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"Barnes" <anonymous@discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:13a2e01c44408$5da79f30$a501280a@phx.gbl...
> I have a view in database1 that uses views in database2.
> My DBA says I must give users DATA READER permissions to
> the tables referenced by the database2 views. I am trying
> to keep customers OUT of the tables, only allowing access
> thru views.
>
> Do I really have to give DATA READER to the tables in
> database2 to get my cross-database view references to work?