one SQL DB getting info from another - user setup?

From: Pete Ruby (pete.ruby_at_carris.net)
Date: 06/11/03

  • Next message: Pete Ruby: "Re: denying permissions on the view's underlying tables"
    Date: Wed, 11 Jun 2003 10:48:42 -0400
    
    

    I have 3 SQL DB's. The first one, called "Main", has a procedure that pulls
    tables from our accounting package into the Main DB. In doing so, it
    deletes the old tables, and recreates the new ones. This procedure runs
    nightly. One of the tables it updates is called ITEMMAST.

    I have 2 other databases, call them DB1 and DB2. They are both used in
    separate web based apps. Both have views that reference Main.ITEMMAST. DB1
    has user assigned to it called (you guessed it) USER1; DB2, USER2. Both
    users are SQL type users, listed in the Security\Logins folder in SQL, as
    Standard, with Permit access, with DB1, DB2 as their Default database. They
    both have no server roles, and both have acess to their own DB, and Main,
    with Public Roles.

    In the permissions for Main, USER1 and USER2 are listed, but have NO
    permissions set (all option boxes are BLANK) for any of the tables in Main,
    including ITEMMAST. DB1 and USER1 run fine w/out having any permissions set
    for ITEMMAST. DB2 and USER2 have to have the "SELECT" option for ITEMMAST
    selected to be able to run the associated views in DB2.

    The problem is when we run the procedure to update that table, the
    permissions are also lost. i realize we can change the procedure to just
    delete the records and then append....

    The real question is: does USER1 and USER2 need specific permision to
    ITEMMAST? If so, any ideas why USER1 has no problems running views from DB1
    that reference ITEMMAST?

    Thanx
    Pete


  • Next message: Pete Ruby: "Re: denying permissions on the view's underlying tables"

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