Re: How to set Readonly for a user?
From: CurtM (firstname.lastname@example.org)
From: "CurtM" <email@example.com> Date: Tue, 11 Mar 2003 16:13:52 -0800
Changing object ownership of stored procs can definitely
have an impact. The original owner can no longer execute
unless you grant permissions. But if these stored procs
are only run by one application or one user, that may not
be a big deal. Also: if you go this route, check inside
the stored proc to see if they're stored as "create
procedure as user1.nameofstoredproc..." You may have to
manually alter scripts that are like this - you'd have to
test in this case.
>Thanks for the tip.
>Regarding the sp_changeobjectowner, I don't know how this
would work and
>would it effect anyone else?
>"CurtM" <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote in message
>> 1. There is a db_datareader role that will allow that
>> to read everything in the database if that's acceptable.
>> 2. Can you do an sp_changeobjectowner on the stored
>> and change them to the login's ownership? Then of
>> that login can execute those stored procs w/o granting
>> >-----Original Message-----
>> >Hi All,
>> >I'm new to this and would like some help understanding
>> how to set a user to
>> >have only read only access.
>> >I added an account and gave the account access to three
>> >Currently the only way they can get in, via a VB.NET
>> program, is to belong
>> >to the db_owner group. I would like to only allow
>> only access but also
>> >need to allow for stored procs to EXEC. Do I have to
>> each individual
>> >attribute per database object?