Re: Trackers Second Review Response
From: Mike (nospam_at_notherematey.com)
Date: Thu, 2 Oct 2003 18:43:05 +0100
"Murray Cooper" <email@example.com> wrote in message
> Lu Tze wrote:
> > "Murray Cooper" <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote in message
> > news:v8Geb.11487$NX3.email@example.com...
> >>Phil Weldon wrote:
> >>>Okay, okay, take out the 'has', still just a typo. It then is proper
> > syntax
> >>>and grammer; now the content has to shoulder the blame, and it's too
> > frail.
> >>I know it's fashionable in usenet to ridicule the
> >>grammar/spelling police, but there comes a point when
> >>the grammar, spelling, vocabulary and style are *so*
> >>atrocious that you legitimately wonder about the
> >>quality of the thinking associated with them. I think
> >>we may be at that point with this mess.
> > Should that be "wonder legitimately"?
> Either one. You're getting mixed up with the rule
> about not splitting an infinitive. I didn't use an
> infinitive, e.g., "to boldly go". Once I have
> conjugated the verb by specifying a person and tense, I
> may legitimately place the adverb before the verb. In
> fact, the placement of the adverb before the verb is
> more usual; in the preceding sentence, it would have
> looked odd had I written "I may place legitimately the
> adverb..." Of course, with auxiliary verbs like "may",
> one correctly may place the adverb before the auxiliary.
> > If one may go boldly that far?
> You correctly could have written, "If one boldly may go
> that far", OR "If one may boldly go that far". What
> you may not write and consider correct is "to boldly go..."
IMHO Language as it is written and spoken is constantly changing and
evolving. As long as you get your meaning across, who cares!
OK so "to boldly go" may be grammatically incorrect, but everyone knows what
is meant and as long as the meaning has come across, languange has performed